I have to take all these numbers with a grain of salt.
[QUOTE=MongerForSex;2318475]STDs per. Act risk.
[URL]https://srconstantin.wordpress.com/2015/04/30/std-statistics/[/URL][/QUOTE]These numbers seem to have some strange anomalies, or perhaps someone can explain:
Quote on Chlamydia:
"Estimated per-encounter male-to-female transmission risk for unprotected intercourse was determined to be 0. 9%; with a condom it's 0. 053%. " That is a figure when not known if the girl has it or not.
So well over ten times less likely with a condom, or risk reduction by over 90%. Makes sense although I know transmission on finger is possible.
Elsewhere is says incidence is reduced by 60% by use of condom (for Chlamydia):
"Condom Effectiveness: high (reduces risk by 60%.
That is both contradictory and seemingly a rather low improvement. Accidental condom breakages are quite low. Slip off also rare. Yes he could catch from her BBBJ. Can this be part of the discrepancy.
Chlamydia having symptoms in only 2 to 4% of men? Can this be true? Seems very low and I certainly had symptoms 2 times.
I believe one time, I may well have got it from BBBJ, not so young woman (well over 25) from Grace Coffee shop, a very long time ago, e. G. 20 years ago.
With general 3 to 5% prevalence in population and 32% chance of transmission per act (with no condom), one would expect Guys to be catching it from young girls quite regularly, yet many guys doing habitual Bareback claim to have never had it. Can we put this down to having it, but no symptoms and not even knowing they have it?
It is a pity the HIV transmission rate for vaginal sex is not quoted separately for male and for the female, as I believe the rates are vastly different from what I read previously, e.g. perhaps the girl is at 10 times the risk with a HIV partner, and the guy is actually fairly low risk from HIV girl.